UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper-I — Complete Answer Key, Explanations & Topic-wise Analysis

UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2026 was conducted on 24 May 2026. This is the complete answer key, detailed explanations, and a topic-wise analysis for General Studies Paper-I (Set D), prepared by the Ease My Prep team.

Important: These answers represent a best-effort analysis based on standard sources, NCERTs, and verified current affairs. They are NOT the official UPSC answer key (released by UPSC only after the entire selection process). For high-stakes decisions, cross-verify with at least two reputable coaching keys .

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Quick Summary

• Total Questions: 100
• Maximum Marks: 200 (each Q = 2 marks; wrong answer = –0.67)
• Test Series: Set D (Q-numbers in this analysis follow Set D)
• Date: 24 May 2026

Topic-wise Distribution

Topic	Questions	Percentage
Polity	18	18%
Economy	16	16%
Science & Tech	14	14%
Current Affairs & GK	13	13%
Ancient Indian History	12	12%
Environment	10	10%
Geography	9	9%
Modern History	5	5%
Art & Culture	3	3%

Detailed Topic and Subtopic Breakdown

Topic	Count	Subtopics (with Question Numbers)
Polity	18	International Relations (Q86, Q89, Q91, Q92, Q97, Q100); Political Theory (Q76, Q77, Q78); Indian Constitution (Q79, Q80, Q82); Acts & Amendments (Q81, Q87); Union & State Legislature (Q83, Q84); Important Bodies (Q88); Panchayati Raj (Q99)
Economy	16	FDI & Markets (Q52, Q54, Q56, Q57, Q62); Banking System (Q55, Q58, Q64); Industries (Q39, Q60); Institutions & Laws (Q61, Q63); Agriculture (Q38); RBI Functions & BoP (Q53); Macroeconomy (Q59); Poverty & Human Development (Q65)
Science & Tech	14	Electronics and IT (Q44, Q45, Q48, Q51, Q67, Q72); Astrophysics and Space (Q49, Q71, Q75); Physics (Q68, Q69, Q74); Biotechnology (Q66, Q73)
Current Affairs & GK	13	International Orgs & Treaties (Q41, Q43, Q90, Q94, Q95, Q96); General Knowledge (2011-2024) (Q21, Q46, Q47, Q50); Defence (Q85, Q93, Q98)
Ancient Indian History	12	Politics and Society (Q3, Q5, Q13, Q17, Q18, Q20); Architecture (Q4, Q14, Q16); Religion and Philosophy (Q2, Q15); Literature (Q10)
Environment	10	Indian Initiatives (Q22, Q30, Q42); Biodiversity in India (Q26, Q32, Q37); Global Initiatives (Q28); Climate Change (Q31); Environment Ecology (Q33); Renewable Energy (Q70)
Geography	9	Rivers, Lakes, Lagoons (Q1, Q35); Roads, Railways, Ports (Q25, Q34); World Geography - Map Based (Q29, Q40); Climatology (Q23); Geomorphology (Q24); Indian Geography - Map Based (Q36)
Modern History	5	Establishment of British Rule (1750-1857) (Q7, Q12); Events from 1933 to 1939 (Q6); Early Gandhian Phase (1917-1925) (Q8); Civil Disobedience & Others (1926-1932) (Q19)
Art & Culture	3	Indian Culture and Heritage (Q9, Q27); Art and Craft in India (Q11)

Question-Type Mix

Question Type	Count
Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)	58
Direct Factual / Single-Best	17
Relationship/Conclusion Statements	7
Pairs Matched / Mismatched	6
Match the Following (List I-II)	4
Case Study / Scenario	3
Assertion-Based	2
Identify (river/person/thing)	2
How-Many / Counting	1

Key Takeaways from UPSC Prelims 2026 GS-I

1. Polity-heaviest year — 18 questions, with 9 from International Relations alone. IR has moved from being a Mains-only subject to a serious Prelims footprint.

2. Ancient History dominates over Modern History — 12 vs 5. Strong NCERT (R.S. Sharma) plus Romila Thapar revision paid off.

3. Current Affairs and GK contributed 13 questions — heavy on Defence, International Organisations, and India-led global initiatives (BIMSTEC, peacekeeping operations).

4. Multi-Statement remains the dominant pattern (58 out of 100) — elimination technique stays the single most important Prelims skill.

5. Direct Factual questions are back (17 out of 100) — surprisingly high for a paper that recently leaned conceptual. Rote facts and map work still matter.

6. Mains-style integration is visible — many questions (e.g., RGSA funding pattern, BIMSTEC centres, Colombo Process) directly mirror GS-II Mains themes.

Complete Question-wise Answer Key and Explanations

Each card shows the verbatim question, the most likely correct answer, and a concept-level explanation. Tags indicate the Topic, Subtopic, and Question-Type pattern.

Q1.

Topic: Geography · Subtopic: Rivers, Lakes, Lagoons · Type: Assertion-Based

Consider the following assertion: In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa. Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion?

1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda
2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote
3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3

Answer: (d) 3

Explanation: The assertion is from R.S. Sharma's NCERT (Ancient India). It is supported by palaeo-drainage/biological evidence — the same species of river dolphin (Platanista gangetica) is found in both the Indus and Ganga systems, indicating these rivers were once connected in the Pleistocene. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda is a hymn listing rivers but does not establish a Pleistocene drainage shift. Robert Bruce Foote is famous for discovering the first Palaeolithic tool in India (Pallavaram, 1863), not specifically for Sutlej-Yamuna explorations.

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Q2.

Topic: Ancient Indian History · Subtopic: Religion and Philosophy · Type: Direct Factual / Single-Best

What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?

(a) The meditation of the Buddha (b) The Buddha's First Sermon (c) The Buddha's Mahaparinibbana (d) The Buddha's Mahabhinishkramana

Answer: (c) The Buddha's Mahaparinibbana / (a) The meditation of the Buddha

Explanation: In early aniconic Buddhist art (Bharhut, Sanchi, Amaravati — pre-Gandhara), the Buddha was never depicted in human form. Symbols stood for events: Bodhi tree = Enlightenment, Wheel (Dharmachakra) = First Sermon, Footprints = Presence, Stupa = Mahaparinibbana, Horse without rider = Great Renunciation (Mahabhinishkramana). The empty/vacant seat (Vajrasana) under the Bodhi tree most commonly represents the Buddha's presence/meditation, but in the context of the Buddha leaving the world it is interpreted as Mahaparinibbana. Note: many keys debate between (a) meditation and (c) Mahaparinibbana — the most widely accepted UPSC-style answer is Mahaparinibbana (the empty throne signifying his final passing)., though Answer could be A also - Empty Seat / Throne (Vajrasana): It marks the "Diamond Throne" at Bodh Gaya, symbolizing his deep meditation, the defeat of Mara's army, and his spiritual awakening

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Q3.

Topic: Ancient Indian History · Subtopic: Politics and Society · Type: Pairs Matched / Mismatched

Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?

1. Vitasta : Chenab
2. Asikni : Jhelum
3. Parushni : Ravi
4. Yavyavati : Beas

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 3 only (d) 4 only

Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation: Correct ancient-modern mapping of the Sapta-Sindhu rivers: Vitasta = Jhelum (not Chenab); Asikni = Chenab (not Jhelum); Parushni = Ravi ✓; Vipas = Beas; Shutudri = Sutlej; Yavyavati is generally identified with the Zhob/Yamuna (debated, not Beas). Hence only pair 3 is correctly matched.

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Q4.

Topic: Ancient Indian History · Subtopic: Architecture · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct?

1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley.
2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.
3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Amaravati Stupa is located in the lower Krishna valley (Andhra Pradesh) ✓. It was the largest stupa in India, not next to Sanchi — Statement 2 is incorrect. The Amaravati school had a profound influence on later South Indian and Sri Lankan and South-east Asian (Anuradhapura, Java) Buddhist sculpture ✓.

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Q5.

Topic: Ancient Indian History · Subtopic: Politics and Society · Type: Pairs Matched / Mismatched

Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are NOT correctly matched?

1. Senguttuvan : Chera
2. Udiyanjeral : Chola
3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: Senguttuvan was a famous Chera king (hero of the Silappadikaram) ✓. Udiyanjeral was also a Chera king (not Chola) — pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Nedunjeliyan was a Pandya king (victor of Talaiyalanganam) ✓.

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Q6.

Topic: Modern History · Subtopic: Events from 1933 to 1939 · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?

1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.
2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.
3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.
4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: From Bipan Chandra's 'India's Struggle for Independence': Bose's resignation as Congress President (after Tripuri 1939) and formation of the Forward Bloc was due to — (1) loss of Gandhi's confidence ✓; (2) disunity of Congress Left ✓; (4) socialists (JP, M.N. Roy supporters) prioritised Congress unity ✓. Statement 3 is incorrect — the Communists initially supported Bose; they only turned against him after WW-II began (People's War line, 1941).

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Q7.

Topic: Modern History · Subtopic: Establishment of British Rule (1750-1857) · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856:

1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.
2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.
3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.

(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 only

Answer: (a) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Post-annexation (1856) policy in Awadh: The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates AND disarmed (their forts demolished) — Statement 1 is incorrect. Summary Settlement of 1856 was made directly with village zamindars/cultivators, treating taluqdars as 'middlemen/interlopers' ✓. The British wanted to collect revenue directly from cultivators ✓. This is one of the causes of the 1857 Revolt in Awadh.

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Q8.

Topic: Modern History · Subtopic: Early Gandhian Phase (1917-1925) · Type: Assertion-Based

Consider the following assertion: The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919. Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?

1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.
2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.
3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Montague-Chelmsford Reforms (Govt of India Act 1919) extended separate electorates to Sikhs, Christians, Anglo-Indians, Europeans (originally introduced for Muslims by Morley-Minto 1909) ✓. The colonial intent of separate electorates was 'divide and rule' against the rising Indian National Movement ✓. Depressed/deprived classes did demand and rally around separate electorates (culminating in the Communal Award 1932 and the Poona Pact) ✓.

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Q9.

Topic: Art & Culture · Subtopic: Indian Culture and Heritage · Type: Direct Factual / Single-Best

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:

(a) Agra Gharana (b) Gwalior Gharana (c) Patiala Gharana (d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Answer: (d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Explanation: Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur (1910–1992), Hindustani classical vocalist and Bharat Ratna recipient (1992), belonged to the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana, having learnt under Manji Khan and Bhurji Khan, sons of Alladiya Khan (the founder of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana).

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Q10.

Topic: Ancient Indian History · Subtopic: Literature · Type: Direct Factual / Single-Best

In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate?

(a) Rigveda (b) Atharvaveda (c) Ashtadhyayi (d) Arthashastra

Answer: (b) Atharvaveda

Explanation: Atharvaveda: This is the correct text. While earlier Vedic texts focused on pastoral life, the Atharvaveda (e.g., hymn 2.12.1) reflects a transition to settled agriculture. It introduces kshetra-patni as a female guardian spirit or agricultural deity associated with land possession and fertility.

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Q11.

Topic: Art & Culture · Subtopic: Art and Craft in India · Type: Direct Factual / Single-Best

Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?

(a) Nat Bhairavi (b) Kamavardhini (c) Hanumatodi (d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Answer: (d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Explanation: Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music corresponds to Dheera Shankarabharanam in Carnatic music — both use all natural (shuddha) notes (S R G M P D N S), equivalent to the Western major scale. Nat Bhairavi ≈ Asavari/Bhairavi; Kamavardhini ≈ Puriya Dhanashri; Hanumatodi ≈ Bhairavi (Hindustani).

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Q12.

Topic: Modern History · Subtopic: Establishment of British Rule (1750-1857) · Type: Direct Factual / Single-Best

The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?

(a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness (b) Providing support to Indian importers (c) Encouraging export of cotton produce from India (d) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Answer: (a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness

Explanation: Hilton-Young Commission (1926) recommended a Gold Bullion Standard with the rupee artificially fixed at 1s 6d (1 shilling 6 pence) sterling, against Indian demand of 1s 4d. The high exchange rate served British interests by — (i) aiding Home Charges/remittances to Britain; (ii) maintaining sterling-rupee parity for British creditors and India's external creditworthiness. It hurt Indian exporters and was a major economic grievance during the freedom struggle.

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Q13.

Topic: Ancient Indian History · Subtopic: Politics and Society · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Consider the following statements: I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika. II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver. The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

1. Emergence of urban life
2. Transition to money economy

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Punch-marked coins (PMCs) from the 6th century BCE Mahajanapada era are key evidence for both — (1) Second Urbanisation in the Ganga valley (rise of cities like Rajagriha, Vaishali, Sravasti) ✓; (2) Transition from barter to a money/monetised economy ✓. The Pali Tipitaka references support both phenomena.

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Q14.

Topic: Ancient Indian History · Subtopic: Architecture · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara?

1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami
2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole
3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh
4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Explanation: Nagara style is the North Indian temple style (curvilinear/beehive shikhara). Among options: Malegitti Shivalaya (Badami) — Dravida style;, Deogarh (early Gupta, c. 5th century CE) — earliest surviving Nagara-style shikhara in India ✓; Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal — Dravida style (built by Chalukya queen Lokamahadevi). The 3 Temple Styles in Aihole Nagara (Northern Style): Characterized by a beehive-shaped, curvilinear tower (shikhara).Examples: The Huchimalli Temple and the upper levels of the Durga Temple contain distinct Nagara elements. Dravidian (Southern Style): Characterized by a pyramidal, stepped-tower structure (vimana) made of multiple stories.Examples: The Meguti Jain Temple on the hilltop and the main superstructure of the Durga Temple display strong Dravidian features. Vesara (Hybrid Style): A fusion style that blends the northern (Nagara) and southern (Dravidian) architectural elements. It typically uses a southern (Dravidian) layout with a northern-style curved roof or tower. Examples: The most iconic example in Aihole is the Durga Temple, which features a semicircular, apsidal plan (like Buddhist chaityas) and a superstructure that marks the early evolution of the Vesara tradition in the Deccan

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Q15.

Topic: Ancient Indian History · Subtopic: Religion and Philosophy · Type: Direct Factual / Single-Best

Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is NOT included?

(a) Deva (gods) (b) Yaksha (demi-gods) (c) Manushya (humans) (d) Tiryancha (animals and plants)

Answer: (b) Yaksha (demi-gods)

Explanation: Jaina texts recognise four gatis (states/forms of worldly existence): Deva (gods), Manushya (humans), Tiryancha (animals/plants), Naraki (hell-beings). 'Yaksha' (demi-gods) is NOT one of the four gatis.

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Q16.

Topic: Ancient Indian History · Subtopic: Architecture · Type: Direct Factual / Single-Best

The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents:

(a) A joyous folk dance (b) Buddha in a meditative pose (c) The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha (d) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Answer: (a) A joyous folk dance

Explanation: The famous Hallisalasya painting in Cave 4 (Rang Mahal) of the Bagh Caves (Madhya Pradesh, c. 6th century CE) depicts a Hallisaka — a circular folk dance performed by women around a single male figure. It is celebrated as one of the finest surviving examples of secular themes in Indian mural painting.

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Q17.

Topic: Ancient Indian History · Subtopic: Politics and Society · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India:

1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595–596).
2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.
3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: All three statements are accurate. The Mankani (Sankheda) plates of Gujarat (595–596 CE) are the earliest dated Indian epigraphic record of the place-value system. By the 9th century the system was widely used in Indian inscriptions. Sanskrit inscriptions from South-east Asia (e.g., the 683 CE Sambor Stone Inscription, Cambodia) use place values.

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Q18.

Topic: Ancient Indian History · Subtopic: Politics and Society · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns: I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels. II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered. III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms. Which of the following inferences can be drawn?

1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.
2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.
3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Inference 1: Spindle-whorls without spinning wheels imply hand-spinning at home — a laborious household activity ✓. Inference 2: Standardised graduated weights/scales imply scientific knowledge ✓. Inference 3 is incorrect — large houses with their own wells, courtyards, and rooms suggest private (individual) property, not common/communal property.

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Q19.

Topic: Modern History · Subtopic: Civil Disobedience & Others (1926-1932) · Type: Direct Factual / Single-Best

Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?

(a) The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress. (b) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers. (c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents. (d) The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Answer: (c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.

Explanation: Eka Movement (1921–22, Hardoi/Bara Banki/Sitapur in Awadh, led by Madari Pasi) — peasants' protest against high RENTS extracted by taluqdars and against eviction ✓. Bardoli Satyagraha (1928, led by Vallabhbhai Patel in Surat district of Gujarat — NOT Saurashtra) — protest against a 22% enhancement of LAND REVENUE ✓.

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Q20.

Topic: Ancient Indian History · Subtopic: Politics and Society · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period: I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains into the present Punjab and Haryana plains. II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells. Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.
2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle).
3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Statement I (well irrigation) is supported by point 1 (ashma chakra/ahava are well-water-drawing devices) ✓. Statement II (draught-animal power) is supported by point 3 (oxen drew water-lifting devices) ✓. Point 2 mentions axes and sickles — these are for clearing and harvesting, not for well-irrigation or draft-power.

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Q21.

Topic: Current Affairs & GK · Subtopic: General Knowledge (2011-2024) · Type: Direct Factual / Single-Best

Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?

(a) Ecuador (b) Peru (c) Bolivia (d) Colombia

Answer: (a) Ecuador

Explanation: On 10 April 2025, UNESCO designated Tungurahua Volcano (along with Napo Sumaco) in Ecuador as new Global Geoparks. Tungurahua is located in the Ecuadorian Andes (provinces of Tungurahua and Chimborazo).

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Q22.

Topic: Environment · Subtopic: Indian Initiatives · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation: Madhav National Park (Shivpuri, Madhya Pradesh) was notified as India's 58th Tiger Reserve in March 2025 ✓. Sakhya Sagar Lake within the park has been a Ramsar Site since 2022 ✓. The park is entirely in Madhya Pradesh — NOT shared with Rajasthan.

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Q23.

Topic: Geography · Subtopic: Climatology · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation: Andaman & Nicobar has a humid tropical coastal climate ✓. It receives rainfall from BOTH the South-west monsoon (May–Sept) and the retreating/North-east monsoon (Oct–Dec) ✓. Maximum precipitation occurs between May and December (monsoon months), NOT December to May.

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Q24.

Topic: Geography · Subtopic: Geomorphology · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India?

1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity
2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills
3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation: (1) The western coast shows submergence of parts due to faulting/tectonic activity ✓; (2) Residual mountains like the Velikonda, Nallamala, Mahendragiri are remnants of older mountain ranges within the Peninsular plateau ✓; (3) Peninsular rivers are mature, slow-flowing — V-shaped deep valleys are characteristic of Himalayan rivers, NOT peninsular.

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Q25.

Topic: Geography · Subtopic: Roads, Railways, Ports · Type: Relationship/Conclusion Statements

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India: I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings. III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation: Statement III builds upon and extends Statement I — relationship 2 is correct ✓. Statement II provides empirical validation of Statement I — relationship 1 is correct ✓. Relationship 3 is incorrect — Statement I and Statement III are complementary, NOT contradictory.

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Q26.

Topic: Environment · Subtopic: Biodiversity in India · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid):

1. It is an epiphytic orchid.
2. The species is endemic to North-east India.
3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 3

Explanation: Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid / Kopou Phool) is an epiphytic orchid ✓. It is the State flower of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh ✓. It is NOT endemic to North-east India — it is widely distributed across South and South-east Asia.

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Q27.

Topic: Art & Culture · Subtopic: Indian Culture and Heritage · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?

1. They acted as army fortresses.
2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.
3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.
4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 4

Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation: The Moidams (Charaideo, Assam) — pyramid-like mound burial system of the Tai-Ahom royalty — were inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in July 2024. They served as burial grounds (with vaulted tomb chambers) for Ahom kings, queens, and nobles, similar to ancient Egyptian pyramids.

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Q28.

Topic: Environment · Subtopic: Global Initiatives · Type: Direct Factual / Single-Best

At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, FAO demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues. Which of the following combinations about the 'Four Betters' proposed by FAO for 'Blue Transformation' is correct?

(a) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean (b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life (c) Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life (d) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Answer: (b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life

Explanation: The FAO's Strategic Framework 2022–2031 is built on the 'Four Betters': Better Production, Better Nutrition, Better Environment, and Better Life — applied in the context of Blue Transformation (sustainable fisheries/aquaculture). Reaffirmed at UNOC-3 (Nice, France, June 2025).

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Q29.

Topic: Geography · Subtopic: World Geography - Map Based · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct?

1. It is the largest desert lake in the world.
2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.
3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea'.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Lake Turkana is the world's largest permanent desert lake and the largest alkaline lake ✓. It is located in northern KENYA (with a small north-eastern tip in Ethiopia), NOT in South Sudan, and is along the East African Rift, NOT the Sahara. The Lake Turkana National Parks are a UNESCO World Heritage Site, and the lake is famously nicknamed the 'Jade Sea' ✓.

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Q30.

Topic: Environment · Subtopic: Indian Initiatives · Type: Direct Factual / Single-Best

Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?

(a) Uttarakhand REDD+ project (b) ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas (c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project (d) Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Answer: (c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project

Explanation: The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project in Meghalaya (initiated by Ka Synjuk Ki Hima Arliang Wah Umiam Mawphlang Welfare Society in 2011) is the first Plan Vivo certified REDD+ project in India. It involves 62 indigenous Khasi villages protecting and restoring community-owned forests.

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Q31.

Topic: Environment · Subtopic: Climate Change · Type: Relationship/Conclusion Statements

Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change: I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. II. India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019. III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation: Statements I (LT-LEDS for net-zero 2070) and II (BUR-4 showed ~8% GHG decrease in 2020 over 2019) are both correct, and II empirically supports I — relationship 1 ✓. Statement III is logically wrong (climate resilience needs long-term cuts) and CONTRADICTS Statement I — relationship 2 ✓.

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Q32.

Topic: Environment · Subtopic: Biodiversity in India · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the IUCN Red List.
2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation: Western Hoolock Gibbon (Hoolock hoolock) is found in Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary, Assam — the only ape in India — IUCN Endangered ✓. Gibbons are masters of brachiation (arm-swinging) ✓. They are NOT gorilla-like; they are small (6–9 kg), slender, lightweight apes.

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Q33.

Topic: Environment · Subtopic: Environment Ecology · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?

1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong — mangroves don't store fresh water and are NOT suitable for paddy. Statement 2 is wrong — mangrove roots are SALT-TOLERANT (halophytes), not salt-sensitive; they don't convert salt water to fresh water. Statement 3 is correct — mangroves act as bio-shields against cyclones/storm surges and provide livelihood (fishing, honey, wood) ✓.

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Q34.

Topic: Geography · Subtopic: Roads, Railways, Ports · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy?

1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala's profile as a maritime heritage destination.
3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation: Vizhinjam International Seaport (Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala) — India's first dedicated container transshipment port — was inaugurated in May 2025. Its natural deep draft (20 m) and location 10 nautical miles from international shipping lanes reduce India's dependence on foreign hubs like Colombo, Singapore, Salalah ✓.

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Q35.

Topic: Geography · Subtopic: Rivers, Lakes, Lagoons · Type: Identify (river/person/thing)

Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:

1. It has an antecedent drainage system.
2. It flows through three countries.
3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
4. It does not form distributaries.

(a) Brahmaputra (b) Indus (c) Sutlej (d) Teesta

Answer: (c) Sutlej

Explanation: The Sutlej — (1) is antecedent (predates the Himalayan uplift) ✓; (2) flows through China (Tibet), India, Pakistan ✓; (3) originates near Mansarovar ✓; (4) does NOT form distributaries (it joins the Beas/Chenab to form the Panjnad) ✓. The Indus forms a delta with distributaries; Brahmaputra has a delta; Teesta originates in Sikkim, not Tibet.

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Q36.

Topic: Geography · Subtopic: Indian Geography - Map Based · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are NOT correct?

1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation: ✅ Statement 1 is correct: Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of administrative units in India. It borders 8 states (Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Bihar) and 1 Union Territory (Delhi), totaling 9.❌ Statement 2 is incorrect: West Bengal, not Rajasthan, shares the longest international border among all Indian states. Its boundary with Bangladesh alone is approximately 2,217 km long. For comparison, Rajasthan's international border with Pakistan is about 1,070 km.❌ Statement 3 is incorrect: Sikkim is not the only state sharing its domestic boundary with just one other state. There are two such states:Sikkim: Borders only West Bengal.Meghalaya: Borders only Assam

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Q37.

Topic: Environment · Subtopic: Biodiversity in India · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?

1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: Pangti village (Wokha district, Nagaland) — model Amur Falcon protection site after the 2012 mass-killing exposé — is a globally celebrated story of community-led conservation ✓. Statement 2 is wrong — tracking technologies help us STUDY migration, not GUIDE birds. Statement 3 is wrong — Amur Falcons remain migratory (transit India in Oct-Nov en route to Africa).

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Q38.

Topic: Economy · Subtopic: Agriculture · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?

1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation: RAD promotes Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) combining crops + horticulture + livestock + agro-forestry + fisheries to enhance productivity and minimise climate/weather risks in rainfed areas ✓. RAD discourages monoculture (promotes diversification) and focuses on RAINFED, NOT irrigated regions.

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Q39.

Topic: Economy · Subtopic: Industries · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?

1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Oeko-Tex Standard 100 certification (granted to Assam's Eri/Endi silk in 2024) is a globally recognised label that opens up access to high-end chemical-free markets ✓ and certifies compliance with international safety, environmental and quality standards ✓.

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Q40.

Topic: Geography · Subtopic: World Geography - Map Based · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?

1. Bahrain 2. Syria 3. Qatar 4. Egypt

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 1 and 3

Explanation: Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman/Arabian Sea. Bahrain (island in Persian Gulf) and Qatar (Persian Gulf) MUST pass through Hormuz. Syria has Mediterranean coast (uses Suez Canal). Egypt has Mediterranean + Red Sea access via Bab-el-Mandeb (NOT Hormuz).

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Q41.

Topic: Current Affairs & GK · Subtopic: International Orgs & Treaties · Type: Match the Following (List I-II)

Match List I with List II: List I (INTERPOL Notice) — List II (Description) A. Silver Notice B. Blue Notice C. Black Notice D. Green Notice

1. To seek information on unidentified bodies
2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation
3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety
4. To identify and trace criminal assets

(a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 (b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 (d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Answer: (c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

Explanation: INTERPOL notice colours: Red — wanted for arrest/extradition; Blue — additional info on identity/location/activities ✓ B-2; Green — warning about person likely to commit crimes ✓ D-3; Yellow — missing persons; Black — unidentified bodies ✓ C-1; Orange — imminent threat; Purple — modus operandi; Silver (2025) — identify, trace, recover criminal assets ✓ A-4.

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Q42.

Topic: Environment · Subtopic: Indian Initiatives · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), under MoEFCC, is/are correct?

1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.
2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.
3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: NIRANTAR was launched by MoEFCC in 2024 to coordinate research institutes under it. Verticals: Ecosystem Survey & Analysis — led by Botanical Survey of India (BSI) — so 1 correct. Research & Management of Ecosystem Services — led by Wildlife Institute of India (WII), Dehradun (NOT Central Zoo Authority) — so 2 incorrect. Capacity Development Support — led by Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM), Bhopal ✓ — so 3 correct.

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Q43.

Topic: Current Affairs & GK · Subtopic: International Orgs & Treaties · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are NOT correct in terms of outcomes of this visit?

1. Signing of a MoU between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg
2. Signing of a MoU on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation
3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific
4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 4

Explanation: Statements 1 and 4 are NOT correct outcomes of the visit — the MoU between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg (Statement 1) was not an outcome of this visit, and the Honorary Consul of Germany was opened in another city (NOT Lucknow). The actual outcomes included the MoU on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation (Statement 2 ✓) and the establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific (Statement 3 ✓).

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Q44.

Topic: Science & Tech · Subtopic: Electronics and IT · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct?

1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India.
2. It is India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: DHRUV64 (launched 15 Dec 2025 by C-DAC under MeitY's Microprocessor Development Programme): (1) third chip under DIR-V (Digital India RISC-V) after THEJAS32 and THEJAS64 ✓; (2) India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core indigenous microprocessor (28 nm node) ✓.

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Q45.

Topic: Science & Tech · Subtopic: Electronics and IT · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

The BIS recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025.
2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.
3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: BIS introduced IS 19445:2025 — India's first national standard for Bomb Disposal Suits — in 2025 ✓. It standardises testing across agencies, improving interoperability ✓. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO Chandigarh — INDIGENOUSLY, NOT in collaboration with Russia.

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Q46.

Topic: Current Affairs & GK · Subtopic: General Knowledge (2011-2024) · Type: Identify (river/person/thing)

'X', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify 'X':

(a) Michel H. Devoret (b) Richard Robson (c) John Clarke (d) Joel Mokyr

Answer: (c) John Clarke

Explanation: Nobel Prize in Physics 2025 was jointly awarded to John Clarke, Michel H. Devoret, John M. Martinis for macroscopic quantum tunnelling. John Clarke was born in Cambridge, UK (1942) and is Professor Emeritus at University of California, Berkeley ✓. Devoret was born in Paris. Joel Mokyr (Economics) was born in Leiden. Robson (Chemistry) is at the University of Melbourne.

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Q47.

Topic: Current Affairs & GK · Subtopic: General Knowledge (2011-2024) · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct?

1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.
2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.
3. There is a limitation on the number of 'Wild Cards' a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 only

Explanation: The four Grand Slams form the Grand Slam Board with shared governance ✓. Entry is restricted by age — junior age (14+) is for junior categories; senior main draws have higher age and ranking requirements — Statement 2 incorrect. There is generally NO formal limit on wild cards a player may receive — Statement 3 incorrect.

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Q48.

Topic: Science & Tech · Subtopic: Electronics and IT · Type: Pairs Matched / Mismatched

Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is NOT correctly matched?

(a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat (b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam (c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh (d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha

Answer: (c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh

Explanation: Under the India Semiconductor Mission: CG Power-Renesas-STARS — Sanand, GUJARAT ✓; TSAT (Tata) — Morigaon, ASSAM ✓; HCL-Foxconn JV (cleared May 2025) — Jewar, UTTAR PRADESH (NOT MP); SicSem — Odisha ✓.

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Q49.

Topic: Science & Tech · Subtopic: Astrophysics and Space · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct?

1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.
2. It was developed by IIT Delhi.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: Bharat Forecast System (BFS) launched May 2025 — indigenous high-resolution (6 km grid) weather model. (1) aims to provide hyper-local forecasts at panchayat-cluster level ✓. (2) developed by Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), PUNE — NOT IIT Delhi.

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Q50.

Topic: Current Affairs & GK · Subtopic: General Knowledge (2011-2024) · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong':

1. The film has recently won the BAFTA Award in the Children's and Family Film category.
2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.
3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The Manipuri film 'Boong' won the BAFTA Best Children's and Family Film at the 79th British Academy Film Awards (22 February 2026) ✓. Directed by debutant Lakshmipriya Devi ✓. First Indian film ever to win this BAFTA category ✓.

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Q51.

Topic: Science & Tech · Subtopic: Electronics and IT · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?

1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.
2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds.
3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access.
4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: (1) records are transparent to authorised stakeholders but immutable ✓; (2) distributed ledger — copies on multiple nodes, synced in seconds ✓; (4) cryptographic hashing and consensus make tampering practically impossible ✓. Statement 3 is technically wrong by strict definition — Consortium blockchain is a permissioned blockchain controlled by a group, NOT a 'blend' of public and private.

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Q52.

Topic: Economy · Subtopic: FDI & Markets · Type: Direct Factual / Single-Best

An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called:

(a) Dropshipping Model (b) Affiliate Revenue Model (c) Transaction Fee Revenue Model (d) Agency Revenue Model

Answer: (a) Dropshipping Model

Explanation: Dropshipping: the seller advertises and prices the product but doesn't hold inventory; orders are forwarded to a supplier/manufacturer who ships directly to the customer. Affiliate = referral commission. Transaction fee = platform earns a fee per transaction. Agency = platform acts on behalf of seller for a commission.

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Q53.

Topic: Economy · Subtopic: RBI Functions & BoP · Type: Direct Factual / Single-Best

Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the RBI?

(a) Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage (b) Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy (c) Access, Usage, and Quality (d) Access, Affordability, and Transparency

Answer: (c) Access, Usage, and Quality

Explanation: RBI's FI-Index (first published 2021) uses three sub-indices: Access (35% weight), Usage (45% weight), Quality (20% weight). Captures the breadth and depth of financial inclusion across banking, investments, insurance, postal, and pension sectors.

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Q54.

Topic: Economy · Subtopic: FDI & Markets · Type: Direct Factual / Single-Best

Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative?

(a) To allow government control over all digital commerce transactions (b) To replace private e-commerce players (c) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks (d) To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions

Answer: (c) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks

Explanation: ONDC (launched 2022 by DPIIT) is an open, interoperable network — it 'unbundles' buyer apps and seller apps so any buyer on any platform can transact with any seller on any other platform. The objective is to democratise digital commerce by breaking the duopoly of large platforms.

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Q55.

Topic: Economy · Subtopic: Banking System · Type: Direct Factual / Single-Best

Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is NOT correct?

(a) UPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency. (b) In case of UPI, settlement happens instantly as money is debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet. (c) UPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another. (d) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.

Answer: (d) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.

Explanation: Statement (d) is INCORRECT — for Digital Rupee (CBDC), the liability lies with the RBI (the central bank), NOT intermediary banks (since CBDC is sovereign money). In UPI, the liability is with the respective commercial banks.

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Q56.

Topic: Economy · Subtopic: FDI & Markets · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct?

1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology.
2. Tokenization of real world assets offers 24×7 access, promoting financial inclusion.
3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: RWA Tokenization — (1) converts real-world assets (real estate, art, gold, bonds) into digital tokens on blockchain ✓; (2) tokens trade 24×7, promoting financial inclusion through fractional ownership ✓; (3) opens access to high-growth assets historically restricted to large investors ✓.

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Q57.

Topic: Economy · Subtopic: FDI & Markets · Type: Direct Factual / Single-Best

A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called:

(a) Green Bond (b) Social Bond (c) Sustainability Bond (d) Sovereign Bond

Answer: (c) Sustainability Bond

Explanation: ICMA classification — Green Bonds: only environmental projects. Social Bonds: only social projects. Sustainability Bonds: COMBINE green + social projects (a hybrid). Sovereign Bonds: issued by sovereign governments.

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Q58.

Topic: Economy · Subtopic: Banking System · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements about M1xchange's role in MSMEs financing is/are correct?

1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs.
2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs.
3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: M1xchange is one of three RBI-licensed TReDS (Trade Receivables Discounting System) platforms (with RXIL and Invoicemart). It facilitates COLLATERAL-FREE invoice discounting / bill-of-exchange discounting for MSMEs ✓. It does NOT provide collateral-based loans and is NOT a credit rating agency.

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Q59.

Topic: Economy · Subtopic: Macroeconomy · Type: Direct Factual / Single-Best

Which one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy?

(a) A situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending (b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment (c) A situation where an increase in taxes leads to increased private sector investment (d) A situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand

Answer: (b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment

Explanation: Crowding Out: heavy government borrowing raises interest rates (loanable-funds market), making it costlier for private firms to borrow — thus 'crowding out' private investment. The opposite is 'crowding in' — option (a).

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Q60.

Topic: Economy · Subtopic: Industries · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct?

1. Modern technological innovations including AI, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise REEs.
2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.
3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 for self-reliance in critical minerals.
4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: (1) REEs (neodymium, dysprosium etc.) are central to AI, robotics, EVs, space tech ✓. (2) China is the world's largest miner of REEs (~60%), followed by USA, Australia, Myanmar — NOT India (<1%). (3) NCMM launched January 2025 ✓. (4) REEs are 17 elements (15 lanthanides + Scandium + Yttrium), NOT 13.

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Q61.

Topic: Economy · Subtopic: Institutions & Laws · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct?

1. 'Aviation Hull Insurance' covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment.
2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Aviation Hull Insurance covers airframe, engines, on-board equipment ✓. Montreal Convention (1999) — India is a party — establishes a two-tier strict liability regime; airlines are STRICTLY liable up to ~128,821 SDRs per passenger for death/injury without fault needing to be proved ✓.

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Q62.

Topic: Economy · Subtopic: FDI & Markets · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct?

1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project.
2. SMEs are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Crowdfunding — (1) raises small sums from a large number of people via online platforms (Kickstarter, Ketto) ✓; (2) lets SMEs/start-ups bypass costly procedures of bank loans and IPOs, getting capital at lower cost ✓.

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Q63.

Topic: Economy · Subtopic: Institutions & Laws · Type: Pairs Matched / Mismatched

With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details:

1. R.N. Malhotra Committee — Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector — IRDA
2. L.C. Gupta Committee — Roadmap for derivatives trading in India — SEBI
3. Urjit R. Patel Committee — Reforming bank lending to Housing sector — RBI
4. Y.H. Malegam Committee — Reforms in Microfinance sector — RBI In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched?

(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4

Answer: (d) 2 and 4

Explanation: Row 1: Malhotra Committee did Insurance reforms but the third column 'IRDA' is incorrect — IRDA was constituted in 1999 as an OUTCOME, not the body under which it was formed. Row 2: L.C. Gupta — derivatives — SEBI ✓. Row 3: Urjit Patel Committee (2014) was on MONETARY POLICY framework (inflation targeting), NOT housing — incorrect. Row 4: Malegam Committee — microfinance — RBI ✓.

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Q64.

Topic: Economy · Subtopic: Banking System · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Consider the following statements about the NBFCs in India:

1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.
2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI.
3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself.
4. Deposit insurance facility of DICGC is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 4

Explanation: (1) NBFCs CANNOT accept demand deposits ✓; (2) Not ALL NBFCs are RBI-registered — some are regulated by SEBI, IRDAI, NHB, MCA (Nidhi), so 2 incorrect; (3) NBFCs are NOT part of the payment & settlement system and CANNOT issue cheques on themselves; (4) DICGC deposit insurance is NOT available to NBFC depositors ✓.

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Q65.

Topic: Economy · Subtopic: Poverty & Human Development · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):

1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.
2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.
3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of UNDP.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: MPI — (1) uses the Alkire-Foster (AF) dual-cutoff methodology from OPHI, Oxford ✓; (2) NITI Aayog's National MPI has 12 indicators across 3 dimensions: Health, Education, Standard of Living ✓; (3) Maternal Health and Bank Account are UNIQUE to India's NMPI — NOT in UNDP's Global MPI (10 indicators).

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Q66.

Topic: Science & Tech · Subtopic: Biotechnology · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct?

1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.
2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.
3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: (1) gene therapies correct/compensate defective genes (e.g., Luxturna for inherited blindness) ✓; (2) engineered viruses (lentiviruses, AAVs) and lipid nanoparticles (LNPs, in mRNA vaccines) are delivery vehicles ✓; (3) gene therapies target SPECIFIC genes, NOT the entire DNA sequence.

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Q67.

Topic: Science & Tech · Subtopic: Electronics and IT · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct?

1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.
2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors.
3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: LLMs — (1) at inference, an LLM predicts the next-token probability distribution; sampling yields output ✓; (2) training uses gradient descent / backpropagation to minimise a loss (cross-entropy) ✓; (3) LLMs CAN inherit biases from training data — NOT unbiased.

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Q68.

Topic: Science & Tech · Subtopic: Physics · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct?

1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material.
2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies.
3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: (1) reduces Radar Cross Section via shape + Radar Absorbing Materials ✓; (2) low-frequency (VHF/UHF) radars and quantum/multi-static radars can detect stealth aircraft ✓; (3) metamaterials are used to REDIRECT/SCATTER waves AWAY from the radar source (cloaking effect), NOT to INCREASE scattering.

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Q69.

Topic: Science & Tech · Subtopic: Physics · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct?

1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection.
2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data.
3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: (1) WRONG — black boxes carry an Underwater Locator Beacon emitting an ULTRASONIC PING (~37.5 kHz), NOT red light pulses; (2) correct — combined CVR + FDR records voice and flight parameters ✓; (3) correct — memory units are housed in crash-survivable enclosures of stainless steel or titanium ✓.

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Q70.

Topic: Environment · Subtopic: Renewable Energy · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct?

1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).
2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Green Hydrogen — produced via electrolysis of water using renewable electricity ✓ (2). Statement 1 actually describes BLUE Hydrogen (natural gas reforming + CCS). NGHM target — abatement of ~50 MMT GHGs and 5 MMT green hydrogen production by 2030 ✓ (3).

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Q71.

Topic: Science & Tech · Subtopic: Astrophysics and Space · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme:

1. The IN-SPACe is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.
2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world's first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.
3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: IN-SPACe (2020, Ahmedabad) — autonomous agency under DoS to authorise/regulate/promote private participation ✓. Agnikul Cosmos (Chennai) — launched Agnibaan SOrTeD on 30 May 2024, world's first flight powered by a single-piece 3D-printed semi-cryogenic engine ✓. Skyroot launched India's first private rocket (Vikram-S, Nov 2022) — it has developed SOLID fuel rocket motors, NOT liquid fuel for GSLV.

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Q72.

Topic: Science & Tech · Subtopic: Electronics and IT · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?

1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.
2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.
3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: (1) Drones commonly use radio/UHF, RF, Wi-Fi, mesh-network frequencies — Terahertz is exotic/experimental; (2) swarm drones use mesh-network communication (drone-to-drone) ✓; (3) GPS spoofing (fake GPS signals to misdirect drones) is a standard counter-drone technique ✓.

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Q73.

Topic: Science & Tech · Subtopic: Biotechnology · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?

1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project.
2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.
3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: GenomeIndia (launched January 2020 by IISc Bengaluru + 19 institutes): (1) NOT part of the international Human Genome Project (1990–2003); it is an Indian initiative; (2) funded by DBT, GoI ✓; (3) aims to build a reference catalogue of genetic variation across India's 4,600+ population groups ✓.

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Q74.

Topic: Science & Tech · Subtopic: Physics · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?

1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50–1000 physical qubits.
2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: NQM (approved April 2023, ₹6,003.65 crore, 2023–31): (1) aims for intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50–1000 physical qubits in 8 years ✓; (2) 4 Thematic Hubs — Quantum Computing (IISc Bengaluru), Quantum Communication (IIT Madras), Quantum Sensing & Metrology (IIT Bombay), Quantum Materials & Devices (IIT Delhi) ✓.

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Q75.

Topic: Science & Tech · Subtopic: Astrophysics and Space · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements with regard to India's Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?

1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.
2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.
3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: (1) Launched by the Ministry of EARTH SCIENCES (MoES), NOT Shipping; (2) Matsya-6000 is a 3-person manned submersible designed to dive to 6000 m depth ✓; (3) Samudrayaan is the manned ocean mission component using Matsya-6000 ✓.

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Q76.

Topic: Polity · Subtopic: Political Theory · Type: Case Study / Scenario

Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare. Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions?

(a) Esprit de corps (b) Equity (c) Accountability (d) Delegation

Answer: (c) Accountability

Explanation: Mr X's actions — taking ownership, reporting to vigilance, halting a flawed contract, prioritising citizen welfare over pressure — demonstrate ACCOUNTABILITY (being answerable for one's decisions and ensuring others are answerable for theirs).

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Q77.

Topic: Polity · Subtopic: Political Theory · Type: Case Study / Scenario

In a multi-ethnic district where economic competition and historical grievances led to community tensions, a flashpoint arose with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation. Which of the statements would contribute to the resolution process?

1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns.
3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives.
4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides.

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: Sound mediation requires — (1) cultural sensitivity FIRST, before technical solutions ✓; (3) multi-stakeholder dialogue platform ✓; (4) transparent, independent ESIA ✓. Statement 2 is wrong — bulldozing through tribal sentiments violates rights (PESA, FRA, constitutional safeguards) and would worsen conflict.

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Q78.

Topic: Polity · Subtopic: Political Theory · Type: Case Study / Scenario

Ms. X is a civil service official approving a contract for a public infrastructure project. She received confidential information that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and corruption allegations (unproven). Mr. Y (HoD) advised her not to disclose this. What should Ms. X do?

1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity
3. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 3 only

Explanation: Best balanced ethical course — Option 1 (immediate full public disclosure) would be irresponsible given allegations are UNPROVEN. Option 2 (recommend removal) prejudges the contractor without due process. Option 3 (limited disclosure to oversight committee) maintains transparency + due process + protects whistleblower confidentiality — the textbook 'graded response' ✓.

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Q79.

Topic: Polity · Subtopic: Indian Constitution · Type: Relationship/Conclusion Statements

'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive — it included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced. Select the correct conclusion:

(a) 'X' is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom. (b) The view of 'Y' that 'law' included custom is not correct. (c) The views of both 'X' and 'Y' are correct. (d) The view of only 'Y' is correct.

Answer: (d) The view of only 'Y' is correct.

Explanation: Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution: 'law' includes any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law..

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Q80.

Topic: Polity · Subtopic: Indian Constitution · Type: Relationship/Conclusion Statements

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:

1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.
2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following conclusions is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct. (b) There is no correct statement. (c) There are two correct statements that include statement 3. (d) There is only one correct statement.

Answer: (b) There is no correct statement.

Explanation: Statement 1: Article 393 — 'This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India' — so the Constitution DOES specify its official name; Statement 1 (which says there is NO such article) is INCORRECT. Statement 2: Article 395 expressly repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 — so Statement 2 is INCORRECT. Statement 3: Article 394 deals with the commencement of certain articles on 26 November 1949 and the rest on '26th January 1950' as the date of commencement of the WHOLE Constitution.

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Q81.

Topic: Polity · Subtopic: Acts & Amendments · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment.
2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for PwDs across three domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and ICT.
3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: Statement 1 — RPwD Act was passed in 2016 (not 2018) and notified 19 April 2017 — date is incorrect. Statement 2 — Sugamya Bharat / Accessible India Campaign (2015) targets three verticals: built environment, transportation, ICT ✓. Statement 3 — NDFDC is under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, NOT Corporate Affairs.

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Q82.

Topic: Polity · Subtopic: Indian Constitution · Type: Relationship/Conclusion Statements

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the SCs and STs in India:

1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the SCs and STs. Which one of the following conclusions is correct?

(a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2. (b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3. (c) There is only one correct statement. (d) All three statements are correct.

Answer: (a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

Explanation: Statement 1 — Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram are in the SIXTH Schedule (not Fifth) — INCORRECT. Statement 2 — Section 10(26) IT Act exempts ST members in specified NE areas from income tax ✓. Statement 3 — Article 243D(3) provides reservation for SC/ST WOMEN in Panchayats ✓.

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Q83.

Topic: Polity · Subtopic: Union & State Legislature · Type: Relationship/Conclusion Statements

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:

1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question. Which one of the following conclusions is correct?

(a) All the three statements are correct. (b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2. (c) There is only one correct statement. (d) There is no correct statement.

Answer: (c) There is only one correct statement.

Explanation: Statement 1 wrong — Unstarred questions = WRITTEN answer. Statement 2 wrong — Starred = ORAL answer (with supplementaries). Statement 3 CORRECT — supplementary questions are NOT allowed on unstarred questions ✓.

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Q84.

Topic: Polity · Subtopic: Union & State Legislature · Type: Relationship/Conclusion Statements

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of SCs and STs of the Parliament of India:

1. Although members are elected from both Houses, the Chairperson is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member.
4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office. Which one of the following conclusions is correct?

(a) There are four correct statements. (b) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2. (c) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1. (d) There is no correct statement.

Answer: (d) There is no correct statement.

Explanation: Statement 1 wrong — Chairperson appointed by SPEAKER of Lok Sabha. Statement 2 wrong — 20 members from LOK SABHA and 10 from RAJYA SABHA (reverse). Statement 3 wrong — NO Minister is eligible (no exception). Statement 4 wrong — members hold office for ONE year (not two).

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Q85.

Topic: Current Affairs & GK · Subtopic: Defence · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India:

1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy.
3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Mission Sudarshan Chakra (announced by PM Modi on Independence Day 2025) — an integrated nationwide defence-shield mission. Statement 2 — designed to provide rapid, precise, powerful defence (multi-layered air defence) ✓. Statement 3 — aims to cover all important public places/sites by 2035 ✓

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Q86.

Topic: Polity · Subtopic: International Relations · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries:

1. 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.
2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.
3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 only (d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation: Statement 1 — 'Maitri Setu' over Feni river connects SABROOM in INDIA (Tripura) with RAMGARH in BANGLADESH (reverse of what is stated). Statement 2 — Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India (Uttarakhand) with NEPAL (over Kali river), NOT Myanmar. Statement 3 — Mechi River bridge connects Panitanki Bypass (WB, India) with Kakarvitta (Nepal) ✓.

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Q87.

Topic: Polity · Subtopic: Acts & Amendments · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?

1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 2 only

Answer: (c) 1 only

Explanation: BNSS 2023 (effective 1 July 2024) Zero FIR: (1) ✓ — Zero FIR can be registered at any police station regardless of jurisdiction; (2) Preliminary enquiry under BNSS Sec 173(3) is for specific offences (3–7 years), NOT a generic Zero FIR feature; (3) Electronic FIR is OPTIONAL under BNSS, NOT obligatory.

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Q88.

Topic: Polity · Subtopic: Important Bodies · Type: Pairs Matched / Mismatched

With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:

1. Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs
2. Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance
3. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None

Answer: (a) 1

Explanation: Row 1 — CEIB is under Department of REVENUE, MINISTRY OF FINANCE (NOT MHA) — INCORRECT. Row 2 — SFIO is under Ministry of CORPORATE AFFAIRS (NOT Finance) — INCORRECT. Row 3 — CBI is under MoPP&P (DoPT) ✓ — CORRECT.

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Q89.

Topic: Polity · Subtopic: International Relations · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following international conventions have NOT been ratified by India?

1. Employment Policy Convention
2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention
3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families
4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War
5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness

(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (d) 3, 4 and 5

Explanation: India's status — (1) ILO C122 ratified (1998); (2) ILO C105 ratified (2000); (3) Migrant Workers Convention — NOT ratified; (4) Geneva Convention IV ratified, but Additional Protocols not (treated by many keys as 'not ratified'); (5) Statelessness Convention — NOT signed/ratified. Best fit answer: (d).

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Q90.

Topic: Current Affairs & GK · Subtopic: International Orgs & Treaties · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi:

1. The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras: People, Planning and Progress.
2. The Preamble stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework.
3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation: AI Impact Summit (New Delhi, Feb 2026). Framework had three Sutras: People, PLANET, Progress (not 'Planning'). The 'Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI' was a guiding (non-binding) declaration — 'binding' is INCORRECT. The New Delhi Declaration was structured around SEVEN Pillars including Access, AI for Science, Secure & Trusted AI ✓.

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Q91.

Topic: Polity · Subtopic: International Relations · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries?

1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project
2. IMT Trilateral Highway
3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation: (1) Kaladan — India to Myanmar (ASEAN) via Sittwe port ✓; (2) IMT (India-Myanmar-Thailand) Trilateral Highway — connects India to Thailand (ASEAN) via Myanmar ✓; (3) Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line — India to BANGLADESH (NOT ASEAN; Bangladesh is in SAARC/BIMSTEC).

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Q92.

Topic: Polity · Subtopic: International Relations · Type: Match the Following (List I-II)

Match List I with List II: List I (Project Supported by India) — List II (Country) A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project B. Restoration of Stor Palace C. District Hospital at Dickoya D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies

1. Maldives 2. Afghanistan 3. Bhutan 4. Sri Lanka

(a) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 (b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 (c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 (d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Answer: (b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

Explanation: A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project — Bhutan ✓ (3); B. Stor Palace restoration (Kabul) — Afghanistan ✓ (2); C. District Hospital at Dickoya — Sri Lanka ✓ (4); D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies (Addu) — Maldives ✓ (1).

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Q93.

Topic: Current Affairs & GK · Subtopic: Defence · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?

1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets
2. T-90 MK-III Tanks
3. Akula Class Submarine

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 only (d) 2 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation: (1) Su-30 MKI is licence-manufactured by HAL at Nasik ✓; (2) T-90 Bhishma / T-90 MK-III tanks are manufactured under licence at Heavy Vehicles Factory (HVF), Avadi ✓; (3) Akula-class nuclear submarines are built in RUSSIA — India only LEASES them (INS Chakra was a leased Akula-I).

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Q94.

Topic: Current Affairs & GK · Subtopic: International Orgs & Treaties · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation:

1. The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.
2. The 'Abu Dhabi Dialogue' is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.
3. The 'Global Forum for Migration and Development', created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Statement 1 WRONG — Colombo Process (est. 2003) is a NON-BINDING consultative process. Statement 2 ✓ — Abu Dhabi Dialogue (2008) is voluntary, non-binding. Statement 3 ✓ — GFMD (proposed by Kofi Annan, launched 2007) is voluntary, state-led; decisions non-binding.

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Q95.

Topic: Current Affairs & GK · Subtopic: International Orgs & Treaties · Type: How-Many / Counting

Consider the following UN organisations/agencies:

1. World Food Programme
2. United Nations Children's Fund
3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
4. International Labour Organisation How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Answer: (a) 1

Explanation: WFP — Nobel Peace Prize 2020 (ONE time). UNICEF — 1965 (ONE time). UNHCR — 1954 AND 1981 (TWO times). ILO — 1969 (ONE time). Only UNHCR has been awarded twice — ONE organisation.

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Q96.

Topic: Current Affairs & GK · Subtopic: International Orgs & Treaties · Type: Match the Following (List I-II)

Match List I with List II: List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation) — List II (Period of Operation) A. UNMIL B. MINURCAT C. MINUSTAH D. UNMISET

1. 2007–2010 2. 2002–2005 3. 2003–2018 4. 2004–2017

(a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Answer: (b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Explanation: A. UNMIL (UN Mission in Liberia) — 2003–2018 ✓ (3); B. MINURCAT (UN Mission in CAR and Chad) — 2007–2010 ✓ (1); C. MINUSTAH (UN Stabilization Mission in Haiti) — 2004–2017 ✓ (4); D. UNMISET (UN Mission of Support in East Timor) — 2002–2005 ✓ (2).

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Q97.

Topic: Polity · Subtopic: International Relations · Type: Match the Following (List I-II)

Match List I with List II: List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment) — List II (Location) A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility

1. NOIDA 2. Bengaluru 3. Colombo 4. Thimphu

(a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 (c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 (d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Answer: (c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

Explanation: A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory — Thimphu, Bhutan ✓ (4); B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre — Bengaluru, India (at CPRI) ✓ (2); C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate — NOIDA, India ✓ (1); D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility — Colombo, Sri Lanka ✓ (3).

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Q98.

Topic: Current Affairs & GK · Subtopic: Defence · Type: Pairs Matched / Mismatched

Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? (Indian Army Corps — Headquarters)

(a) 3 Corps : Dimapur (b) 4 Corps : Tezpur (c) 14 Corps : Leh (d) 33 Corps : Srinagar

Answer: (d) 33 Corps : Srinagar

Explanation: Indian Army Corps and HQs: 3 Corps (Spear) — Dimapur ✓; 4 Corps (Gajraj) — Tezpur ✓; 14 Corps (Fire and Fury) — Leh ✓; 33 Corps (Trishakti) — SUKNA, West Bengal (NOT Srinagar). Srinagar is HQ of 15 Corps (Chinar Corps).

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Q99.

Topic: Polity · Subtopic: Panchayati Raj · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?

1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the SDGs.
3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: Revamped RGSA (approved April 2022): Statement 1 — Revamped RGSA runs from FY 2022-23 to 2025-26 (1 April 2022 to 31 March 2026), NOT from 1 April 2021. Statement 2 — develop governance capabilities of PRIs to deliver SDGs ✓. Statement 3 — Central:State funding ratio is 60:40 (general), 90:10 (NE/Himalayan), 100% for UTs without legislature — NOT 100% for ALL.

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Q100.

Topic: Polity · Subtopic: International Relations · Type: Multi-Statement (incl. Two-Stmt)

Which of the following countries are members of the European Union?

1. Belarus 2. Poland 3. Germany 4. Switzerland

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation: (1) Belarus — NOT EU (in EAEU); (2) Poland — EU since 2004 ✓; (3) Germany — founding EU member (EEC 1957) ✓; (4) Switzerland — NOT EU (in EFTA + Schengen).

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